Unit - 1
1. Pick up the correct statement from the following :
a. All
b. Rivers, lakes, oceans and springs get water from the rains
c. Rain water is obtained by evaporation from rivers, lakes and oceans
d. Water remains in atmosphere as vapours
2. The theory of infiltration capacity was given by
a. Le-Roy K. Shermen
b. Robert E. Horten.
c. W.W. Horner
d. Merrill Bernard
3. Unit Hydrograph theory was enunciated by Le-Roy K. Shermen.
a. True
b. False
4. Hydrology helps in
a. predicting maximum flows
b. deciding the minimum reservoir capacity
c. forecasting the availability of quantity of water at reservoir site
d. All of above
5. Water contains
a. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
b. one hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom
c. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms
d. three hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms
6. What is Palar pani?
a. Spring
b. Milk
c. River water
d. Rain rain
7. The name given to the diversion channels of the western Himalayas is
a. Guls or Kuls
b. Johads
c. Phalodi
d. Khadins
8. Which of the following is the major source of fresh water which is available in India?
a. Ocean water
b. River water
c. Pond water
d. Ground water
9. Which planet is also known as blue planet?
a. Mars
b. Earth
c. Venus
d. Mercury
10. Narmada Bachao Andolan is related to
a. Tehri
b. Rihand
c. Bhakra Nangal
d. Sardar Sarovar
11. At what time usually rainfall is recorded in India?
a. 9 p.m
b. 11 p.m
c. 10 p.m
d. 8 p.m
12. The total surface of water in the earth surface is
a. 70 %
b. 75 %
c. 71 %
d. 95 %
13. The rank of India in terms of water availability per person p.a in the world is
a. 130th
b. 132nd
c. 133rd
d. 134th
14. The water supply system means
a. construction of reservoirs
b. the entire scheme of collection and disposal of liquid waste
c. the complete layout from the source of supply to the distribution
d. construction of canals
15. The water obtained from the tube wells is known as sub-surface water.
a. False
b. True
16. The water obtained from a lake is known as surface water.
a. False
b. True
17. The water obtained from
a. rivers
b. wells
c. infiltration galleries
d. springs
18. The water obtained from
a. artesian wells
b. reservoirs
c. rivers
d. rains
19. The horizontal tunnels constructed at shallow depths along the banks of a river to intercept the ground water table are called
a. rivers
b. wells
c. springs
d. infiltration galleries
20. The vertical wells provided along the banks of a river to draaw ground water in dry season are called
a. artesian wells
b. tube wells
c. infiltration wells
d. Open wells
21. When a pervious strata is sandwitched between two impervious strata of cup shape, the well is called a tube well.
a. False
b. True
22. A pipe sunk into the ground to tap the underground water is called
a. tube well
b. infiltration well
c. artesian well
d. open well
23. The earth's water circulatory system is known as hydrological cycle.
a. True
b. False
24. When in the pervious strata, the surface of water surrounding the well is at atmospheric pressure, the well is known as gravity well.
a. True
b. False
25. The quality of tube well water is good.
a. True
b. False
26. Absolute pure water is good for health.
a. False
b. True
27. The continuous flow of water may be expected from artesian springs..
a. True
b. False
28. The artesian spring has too much hydraulic gradient and water flows out automatically.
a. True
b. False
29. The water bearing strala i.e. layers of sand, gravel etc, is called an acquifer.
a. True
b. False
30. The layers such as lime stone and snd store which do not allow the water to pass through them are known as aquiclude.
a. True
b. False
Unit 2
31. In secondary treatment of sewage, the operation which takes place is
a. removal of fine dissolved organic material
b. removal of heavier suspended inorganic material
c. removal of harmful bacterias
d. all of the above
32. In preliminary treatment of sewage, the operation which takes place, is
a. removal of fine suspended particles
b. removal of fine dissolved organic material
c. removal of harmful bacterias and other organisms
d. removal of lighter floating material
33. The treatment which employs mechanical and hydraulic separation principles is referred as secondary treatment.
a. False
b. True
34. The secondary treatment of sewage is carried out by the use of
a. grit chambers
b. trickling filters
c. screens
d. chlorinators
35. In high rate activated sludge treatment, bacterias are removed from 80 to 95%.
a. False
b. True
36. In primary settling tank, suspended solids are reduced from
a. 40 to 70%
b. 30 to 70%
c. 40 to 80%
d. 40 to 80%
37. Grit chambers are used to remove sand and other organic matter from sewage.
a. False
b. True
38. Grit chambers of a sewage plant are usually changed after
a. 2 days
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 days
39. Biological action is used in
a. trickling filters
b. sedimentation tanks
c. screens
d. All of above
40. devices remove materials which would damage equipment or interfere with a process.
a. Screening
b. Oxidation
c. Reduction
d. Grit
41. represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
a. Debris
b. screens
c. waste
d. grit
42. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is absent?
a. Mechanical mixers
b. Screening devices
c. Grit removers
d. Sedimentation tank
43. Screening and comminution are preliminary treatment processes.
a. True
b. False
44. Supplemental means of aeration are often employed with an equalization basin to provide better mixing.
a. False
b. True
45. Which process is employed to gain sufficient head for the wastewater?
a. Pumping
b. Oxidation
c. Fermentation
d. Screening
46. What is the most common used coagulant?
a. Coal
b. Limestone
c. Ferric sulphate
d. Alum
47. Nitrification efficiency is significantly suppressed as the temperature is decreased.
a. True
b. False
48. What is the intermediate zone composed of in aerobic-anaerobic ponds?
a. Algae
b. Organic solids
c. Aerobic bacteria
d. Facultative bacteria
49. is a process which involves further removal of the nitrogen.
a. Reduction
b. Nitrification
c. Ammonification
d. Denitrification
50. In rotating biological contractors, what percent of corrugated plastic discs are submerged?
a. 120
b. 80
c. 60
d. 40
51. The degradation of BOD is classified as what type of reaction?
a. Third Order Reaction
b. Second Order Reaction
c. Zero Order Reaction
d. First Order Reaction
52. Activity is the effective concentration term used to account for the non-ideal conditions encountered due to ion-ion interaction. Activity is defined at 1 atm pressure and 298.15 K temperature. It is measured in mol/L (M).
a. True
b. False
53. I = (2.5×10-5) TDS .This correlation was defined by Stumm and Morgan in 1996. The ionic strength can be found if the TDS is known. TDS is measured in mg/L.
a. True
b. False
54. In water treatment which factor which has a major control over reaction selectivity and product distribution?
a. Temperature
b. Ionic concentration
c. pH
d. Pressure
55. Photocatalysis is the combination of using a photocatalyst and UV or visible light for the treatment of wastewaters and gaseous pollutants.
a. True
b. False
56. In case of Moving Bed Bioreactor and Activated Sludge process which is the factor that limits the rate of the reaction?
a. pH
b. Ionic concentration
c. Temperature
d. Pressure
57. The chemical composition of wastewater naturally reflects the origin from which it came.
a. False
b. True
58. The world’s available fresh water supply is about _ percent of that total water supply.
a. 5
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
59. The sewage is treated by aerobic bacteria action in
a. oxidation pond
b. settling tank
c. crickling filter
d. None of above
60. In the freshly produced sewage, aerobic activity is maximum.
a. True
b. False
0 Comments